Solutions by everydaycalculation.com

1^{st} number: 6 2/8, 2^{nd} number: 40/42

508 is greater than 4042

- Find the least common denominator or LCM of the two denominators:

LCM of 8 and 42 is**168**

Next, find the equivalent fraction of both fractional numbers with denominator 168 - For the 1st fraction, since 8 × 21 = 168,

508 = 50 × 218 × 21 = 1050168 - Likewise, for the 2nd fraction, since 42 × 4 = 168,

4042 = 40 × 442 × 4 = 160168 - Since the denominators are now the same, the fraction with the bigger numerator is the greater fraction
- 1050168 > 160168 or 508 > 4042

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